Salesforce Developer and Admin Interview Question and Answers Test Challenge: Apex, LWC, and CRM

Salesforce Developer & Admin Interview Challenge: Apex, LWC, and CRM

Test your knowledge of **Salesforce CRM Fundamentals, Core Administration, Apex Development, and Advanced Lightning Features**. **Pass with 80% to proceed to the next difficulty level.**

Level 1: Admin Fundamentals & Data Model: 0/10 (0%)

Level 2: Apex, SOQL, & Automation: 0/10 (0%)

Level 3: Advanced Development & Integration: 0/10 (0%)

Level 1: Admin Fundamentals & Data Model

1.1 What is the key characteristic of Salesforce's Multi-Tenant Architecture?

A. Each customer has their own dedicated hardware server. B. Multiple customers share a single, common infrastructure and code base, ensuring automatic upgrades and scalability. C. Customers can choose between two physical data centers for redundancy.

**Correct Answer: B. Multiple customers share a single, common infrastructure and code base...** This is the foundation of the Salesforce platform, regulated by Governor Limits.

1.2 Which feature is used to control Record-Level Security in Salesforce?

A. Profiles and Permission Sets B. Custom Metadata Types C. Organization-Wide Defaults (OWD), Sharing Rules, Roles, and Manual Sharing

**Correct Answer: C. Organization-Wide Defaults (OWD), Sharing Rules, Roles, and Manual Sharing**. These mechanisms determine which records a user can view or edit, regardless of their object permissions.

1.3 What is the primary function of a Profile in Salesforce?

A. To define the sharing settings for all records a user owns. C. To define a user's object-level permissions (CRUD) and their User Interface settings (Layouts, Tabs, Apps). C. To store temporary user session information.

**Correct Answer: B. To define a user's object-level permissions...**. A Profile is the base set of permissions given to a user. **Permission Sets** are used to grant *additional* permissions.

1.4 What type of relationship allows a child record to be optionally associated with a parent record, where the parent's deletion does not automatically delete the child?

A. Master-Detail Relationship B. Lookup Relationship C. Hierarchical Relationship

**Correct Answer: B. Lookup Relationship**. Lookups represent a loose coupling; the child remains after the parent is deleted. Master-Detail represents a strong coupling where the child is deleted (cascade delete).

1.5 Which standard object is the parent object in a standard Master-Detail Relationship with the Opportunity object?

A. Contact B. Account C. Lead

**Correct Answer: B. Account**. An Opportunity is always related to exactly one Account via a Master-Detail relationship, inheriting security and ownership.

1.6 Which tool should be used to automate a simple field update on a record when a specific condition is met, assuming no complex branching is needed?

A. Apex Trigger B. Record-Triggered Flow C. Workflow Rule (Legacy)

**Correct Answer: B. Record-Triggered Flow**. Flows are the recommended, declarative automation tool, replacing Workflow Rules and Process Builders. They handle everything from simple field updates to complex logic.

1.7 What is the maximum number of fields allowed in an object's Validation Rule?

A. 5 B. No limit, but performance is a consideration. C. 50

**Correct Answer: B. No limit, but performance is a consideration**. There is no hard-coded limit on the number of fields in a single validation rule, but Salesforce recommends keeping formula size and complexity manageable for performance.

1.8 Which Salesforce feature is used to ensure data integrity by restricting the values users can enter into a field?

A. Dependent Picklists B. Picklists and Validation Rules C. Report Filters

**Correct Answer: B. Picklists and Validation Rules**. Picklists restrict input to a predefined list, and Validation Rules prevent the saving of a record if the data violates specific criteria (e.g., date logic or required field combinations).

1.9 What is a Custom Object in Salesforce?

A. A standard object (like Account or Contact) that has been modified. B. A database table created by a user to store information specific to the organization's business needs. C. A class used in Apex programming.

**Correct Answer: B. A database table created by a user...**. Custom objects are essential for extending the Salesforce data model beyond the standard CRM objects.

1.10 In a Roll-Up Summary Field, which type of relationship must exist between the parent and child objects?

A. Lookup Relationship B. Master-Detail Relationship C. Hierarchical Relationship

**Correct Answer: B. Master-Detail Relationship**. Roll-Up Summary Fields rely on the strict parental control and ownership provided by the Master-Detail relationship to aggregate data (SUM, MIN, MAX, COUNT) from child records to the parent.

**End of Admin Fundamentals & Data Model. Click "Next Level" to continue.**

Level 2: Apex, SOQL, & Automation

2.1 What is a Governor Limit in Salesforce Apex?

A. A limit on the number of users an organization can have. B. A hard-coded limit on the size of the database storage. C. Runtime limits enforced by the platform to ensure code doesn't monopolize shared resources in the multi-tenant environment.

**Correct Answer: C. Runtime limits enforced by the platform...**. Governor Limits regulate things like the total number of SOQL queries, DML statements, and CPU time allowed in a single transaction.

2.2 What is the key difference between SOQL (Salesforce Object Query Language) and SOSL (Salesforce Object Search Language)?

A. SOQL is for retrieving a single record; SOSL is for multiple records. B. SOQL queries a single object and can traverse parent-to-child relationships; SOSL queries multiple objects and fields for text-based matches. C. SOSL is used in Apex; SOQL is used in Flows.

**Correct Answer: B. SOQL queries a single object...**. SOQL is similar to SQL (`SELECT id, name FROM Account`), while SOSL is more like a full-text search across various objects (`FIND 'smith' IN ALL FIELDS RETURNING Account, Contact`).

2.3 Which design pattern is most commonly used in Apex to handle all Trigger logic in one place and prevent recursion?

A. Factory Pattern B. Trigger Handler (or Service Layer) Pattern C. Observer Pattern

**Correct Answer: B. Trigger Handler (or Service Layer) Pattern**. This pattern ensures there is only one trigger per object and delegates all business logic to handler classes, improving maintainability and testability.

2.4 What is the purpose of the `static` keyword when applied to an Apex variable or method?

A. It makes the variable/method accessible only within the current class. A. It means the variable/method is associated with the class itself, not a specific instance of the class, and is initialized only once. C. It restricts the variable's scope to only the current transaction.

**Correct Answer: A. It means the variable/method is associated with the class itself...**. Static variables are critical for implementing helper methods and, most importantly, for implementing **one-time execution logic** in trigger handlers (recursion control).

2.5 Which of the following is executed first in the Salesforce Order of Execution for a record update?

A. After-Save Apex Triggers B. Before-Save Record-Triggered Flows and Before Apex Triggers C. Database Commit

**Correct Answer: B. Before-Save Record-Triggered Flows and Before Apex Triggers**. These execute first, allowing for efficient field manipulation before the record is officially saved to the database.

2.6 Why must Apex code be bulkified?

A. To increase its complexity. B. To efficiently process large batches of records (e.g., up to 200 records in a trigger) within Governor Limits. C. To run the code asynchronously.

**Correct Answer: B. To efficiently process large batches of records...**. Non-bulkified code performs operations (like SOQL or DML) inside loops, quickly hitting Governor Limits and failing when processing multiple records simultaneously.

2.7 What is the minimum Apex code coverage required to deploy Apex classes to a production environment?

A. 50% for all classes, and every trigger must have some coverage. B. 75% for all classes and triggers combined, with every class and trigger having at least 1% coverage. C. 90% for all Apex classes.

**Correct Answer: B. 75% for all classes and triggers combined...**. This mandatory requirement ensures quality and stability before code runs in the production environment.

2.8 What is the default sharing setting for an Apex class when no sharing keywords (`with sharing` or `without sharing`) are explicitly used?

A. It defaults to `with sharing`. B. It defaults to `without sharing`. C. It inherits the sharing setting of the calling class or method.

**Correct Answer: B. It defaults to `without sharing`**. Apex runs in **System Mode** by default, meaning it ignores the user's CRUD/FLS permissions and record-level sharing rules unless `with sharing` is explicitly declared.

2.9 What happens if an Apex Trigger calls an HTTP callout method directly without using a separate asynchronous process?

B. The code will throw a "You have uncommitted work pending" or a "Callout not allowed" runtime exception. B. The callout will execute synchronously and block the user until it completes. C. The callout will be automatically queued for later execution.

**Correct Answer: A. The code will throw a "You have uncommitted work pending"...**. Callouts are generally forbidden in synchronous Apex (like `before` or `after` triggers) because they could block the thread indefinitely, violating the multi-tenant architecture. They must be done asynchronously (e.g., using `@future`).

2.10 Which declarative automation tool is best suited for complex business processes that involve branching logic and screen inputs for the user?

B. Screen Flow B. Apex Trigger C. Validation Rule

**Correct Answer: A. Screen Flow**. Screen Flows allow administrators to build wizards and multi-step processes that gather user input and react dynamically to their selections.

**End of Apex, SOQL, & Automation. Click "Next Level" to continue.**

Level 3: Advanced Development & Integration

3.1 What is the primary advantage of using a Queueable Apex job over a simple `@future` method?

A. It has higher Governor Limits than `@future`. B. It supports complex object types as parameters and allows for chaining jobs (starting a new job from the current one). C. It can be run immediately in the current transaction.

**Correct Answer: B. It supports complex object types as parameters and allows for chaining jobs...**. Queueable Apex is the modern standard for simple asynchronous processing, offering more flexibility and reliability than `@future`.

3.2 When should a developer use Batch Apex instead of `Queueable` Apex?

A. For any asynchronous task that requires an HTTP callout. B. When only 100 or fewer records need to be processed. C. When a large volume of records (e.g., thousands or millions) needs to be processed, requiring the processing to be broken into manageable chunks (batches).

**Correct Answer: C. When a large volume of records...**. Batch Apex (`Database.Batchable`) is specifically designed to bypass the 50,000 record limit on SOQL queries and process data sets in batches of up to 2,000 records each.

3.3 What is a Platform Event and how is it primarily used?

A. A type of report that runs daily. B. A custom event definition used for the real-time, event-driven integration of external systems with Salesforce. C. A way to schedule Apex classes to run at a specific time.

**Correct Answer: B. A custom event definition used for the real-time...**. Platform Events enable the **Publish/Subscribe** pattern, allowing one system to publish an event and multiple systems (both inside and outside Salesforce) to subscribe and react to it.

3.4 What is the Shadow DOM in the context of Lightning Web Components (LWC)?

B. A private, encapsulated DOM subtree that prevents external CSS from affecting a component's internal structure and vice versa. B. A mechanism used for data binding between HTML and JavaScript. C. The structure used by Salesforce to store component metadata.

**Correct Answer: A. A private, encapsulated DOM subtree...**. The Shadow DOM provides CSS and DOM isolation, which is a key feature of LWC and modern web component standards, ensuring component styles don't leak out.

3.5 How does a child LWC component primarily communicate up to its parent component?

A. By modifying a property on the parent component. B. By dispatching a **Custom Event** (using `this.dispatchEvent(new CustomEvent(...))`). C. By using an `@api` property.

**Correct Answer: B. By dispatching a Custom Event...**. The standard pattern for child-to-parent communication in LWC is to fire an event. `@api` properties are for parent-to-child (downward) communication.

3.6 What is the primary purpose of the `@wire` decorator in LWC?

B. To read data from the Salesforce data store or call an Apex method reactively, automatically caching the result. B. To ensure a function runs only when a component is initialized. C. To expose a function to other components.

**Correct Answer: A. To read data from the Salesforce data store or call an Apex method reactively...**. `@wire` is part of the Lightning Data Service (LDS) and handles security, caching, and reactivity when retrieving data.

3.7 Which security check should be implemented in Apex when performing a DML operation (e.g., `update`) on an SObject queried from a database?

A. `isAccessible()` B. `isUpdateable()` C. `isCreatable()`

**Correct Answer: B. `isUpdateable()`**. This FLS (Field Level Security) check ensures that the user's profile/permission set actually allows them to update the field being manipulated. `isAccessible()` checks read permission.

3.8 Which type of web service allows clients to interact with Salesforce by calling methods defined in a WSDL file?

B. SOAP Web Service B. REST API C. Bulk API

**Correct Answer: A. SOAP Web Service**. SOAP is XML-based, strictly typed, and relies on WSDL (Web Service Description Language) for formal contract definition. REST is stateless, uses JSON or XML, and relies on resource URLs (simpler).

3.9 What is a Custom Metadata Type (CMDT) and what is its primary use case?

A. It's a type of external object used for integration. B. It is custom-defined application metadata (like settings, configurations, or parameters) that can be queried in Apex/Flow and deployed via a Change Set. C. It's an Apex class that exposes a custom API.

**Correct Answer: B. It is custom-defined application metadata...**. CMDTs are preferred over Custom Settings (Hierarchy/List) for storing configuration data because they can be easily packaged and deployed across orgs, and don't count against data storage limits.

3.10 In LWC, why is it necessary to use the `@track` decorator, and when is it often redundant?

B. It makes a field reactive (re-renders the component on change). It is redundant for primitive types and simple objects because LWC makes them reactive by default. B. It prevents a property from being edited by a user. C. It is used to call Apex methods.

**Correct Answer: A. It makes a field reactive...**. You primarily need `@track` for deep reactivity on private **objects or arrays** (e.g., if you modify an element deep within an array, `@track` is required for LWC to detect the change).

**Salesforce Mastered! Click "Finish Quiz" to see your final summary.**